UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-53

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-53

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?
(A) Reliability 
(B) Objectivity
(C) Ambiguity 
(D) Validity

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?
(A) Overhead projector 
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope 
(D) Slide projector

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research 
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research 
(D) Fundamental Research

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used?
(A) ibid 
(B) et.al
(C) op.cit : 
(D) loc.cit.

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-52

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-52

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide 
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN 
(D) Nitrous oxide

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(D) Fertilizers

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air 
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water 
(D) Salt

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
(A) Total dissolved solids 
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen 
(D) Density

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A) floods 
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes 
(D) tidal energy

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I                                          List – II

(i) Ozone hole                             (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect                (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards                  (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development    (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A) Dharmshala 
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan 
(D) Chandigarh

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04 
(B) 05
(C) 06 
(D) 08

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-50

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-50

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric 
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive 
(D) irreflexive

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 
(D) 1 and 3

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical 
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative 
(D) Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A) certainty 
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture 
(D) surety

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 
(D) 1 and 2

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B 
(B) C
(C) D 
(D) E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
(A) 20% 
(B) 25%
(C) 30% 
(D) 33.33%

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-49

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-49

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication
(A) Visual one way 
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way 
(D) Visual two way

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow 
(B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai 
(D) Mumbai

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 
(B) 1936
(C) 1946 
(D) 1956

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?
(A) NTCS 
(B) PAL
(C) NTSE 
(D) SECAM

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points 
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points 
(D) Television Rating Points

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, …………
(A) 60 
(B) 64
(C) 72 
(D) 70

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(A) N 
(B) M
(C) O 
(D) L

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 
(B) 2
(C) 4 
(D) 5

10. The basis of the following classification is :
‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names 
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases 
(D) Indefinite description

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-48

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-48

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling 
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling 
(D) Stratified sampling

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science.New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science.
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:
1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

54. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive 

(B) Negative
(C) Neutral 

(D) Unspecified

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million 

(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million 

(D) 60 million

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization 

(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities 

(D) All the above

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress
(D) The limits to growth

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-47

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-47

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 
(D) 2 and 3

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                       List – II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme   (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme          (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme            (iv) MNREGA
Codes:
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and motivation

44. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric 
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric 
(D) Textbook centric

45. The best method of teaching is to
(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A) Argument 
(B) Information
(C) Ideas 
(D) Controversy

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal 
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication 
(D) Face-to-face communication

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor 
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-46

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-46

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?
(A) Wetlands 
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants 
(D) Cement Industry

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead 
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium 
(D) Zinc

33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change 
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste 
(D) Biodiversity

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy 
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?
(A) Literacy Rate 
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio 
(D) Life Expectancy

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A) the U.K. 
(B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia 
(D) Canada

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 4 
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 
(D) 3 only

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings?
1. His Excellency 
2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble 
4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2 
(D) 1, 2 and 3

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-45

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-45

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas 
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting 
(D) Social welfare and nutrition

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting 
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment 
(D) Social welfare & nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs 
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition 
(D) Overall social services

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment 
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition 
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs

25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit 
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit 
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor 
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board 
(D) Mother Board

27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware 
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software 
(D) None of these

28. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is .................
(A) .pdf 
(B) .doc
(C) .docx 
(D) .txt

30. .............. is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP 
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP 
(D) POP

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-44

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-44

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20 
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12 
(D) 40, 10

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (ᵡ), C means divided by (÷) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8 
(B) 10
(C) 12 
(D) 14

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below :
Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II : The difference of skin colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes:
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest. 
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest. 
(D) All of the above.

15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?
(A) Customer 
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver 
(D) Disciple

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II 
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV 
(D) II & IV

18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes :
(A) I and II 
(B) I and III
(C) II and III 
(D) All the above

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24:

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One 
(B) Three
(C) Five 
(D) All the above

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08 
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 
(D) 2010-11

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-43

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-43

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication 
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication 
(D) Dialogue communication

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication 
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication 
(D) Face-to-face communication

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India 
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu 
(D) The Deccan Herald

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas 
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra 
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment 
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment 
(D) Power equation

7. The missing number in the series :
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 
(B) 220
(C) 280 
(D) 210

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80 
(B) 100
(C) 90 
(D) 110

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4 
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4 
(D) 6

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR 
(B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL 
(D) SAMLR