UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-58

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-58

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide 

(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide 

(D) Aerosols

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen 

(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide 

(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy 

(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy 

(D) Tidal energy

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector 

(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants 

(D) Hydropower plants

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake 

(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods 

(D) Nuclear accident

36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values 

(B) the social values
(C) the political values 

(D) the economic values

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 

(B) 07
(C) 08 

(D) 09

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I                                              List – II

(Commissions and (Year)
Committees)

(a) First Administrative                 (i) 2005
Reforms Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby                       (ii) 1962
Committee I
(c) K. Santhanam                           (iii) 1966
Committee
(d) Second Administrative             (iv) 1953
Reforms Commission
Codes:
      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-57

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-57

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100 

(B) 110
(C) 120

(D) 180

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30 

(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25 

(D) exactly 5

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt 

(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt 

(D) 0.75 mmt

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt 

(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt 

(D) 4 mmt

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?
(A) Windows Vista 

(B) Android
(C) Windows XP 

(D) All of the above

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2 

(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10 

(D) (1111)16

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle 

(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab 

(D) Assembler

28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program 

(B) high level program
(C) web page 

(D) web server

29. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System 

(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software 

(D) Dependent Name Server

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-56

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-56

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.10,000.
(A) persuasive
(B) precising
(C) lexical
(D) stipulative

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10 

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-55

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-55

1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping 

(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting 

(D) Photo colour adjustment

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
(A) Audience 

(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite 

(D) Media

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
(A) English 

(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali 

(D) Tamil

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3 

(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3 

(D) 2 : 4

5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication 

(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication 

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76 

(B) 74
(C) 75

(D) 50

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X 

(B) Y
(C) Z 

(D) A

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3 

(B) 6
(C) 9 

(D) 4

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions 

(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases 

(D) Common names

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-54

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-54

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study 
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study 
(D) Experimental study

52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups 
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research 
(D) All the above

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

54. Research ethics do not include
(A) Honesty 
(B) Subjectivity
(C) Integrity 
(D) Objectivity

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60:

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about Rs 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-53

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-53

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?
(A) Reliability 
(B) Objectivity
(C) Ambiguity 
(D) Validity

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?
(A) Overhead projector 
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope 
(D) Slide projector

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research 
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research 
(D) Fundamental Research

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used?
(A) ibid 
(B) et.al
(C) op.cit : 
(D) loc.cit.

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-52

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-52

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide 
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN 
(D) Nitrous oxide

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(D) Fertilizers

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air 
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water 
(D) Salt

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
(A) Total dissolved solids 
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen 
(D) Density

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A) floods 
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes 
(D) tidal energy

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I                                          List – II

(i) Ozone hole                             (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect                (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards                  (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development    (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A) Dharmshala 
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan 
(D) Chandigarh

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04 
(B) 05
(C) 06 
(D) 08

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-50

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-50

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric 
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive 
(D) irreflexive

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 
(D) 1 and 3

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical 
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative 
(D) Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A) certainty 
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture 
(D) surety

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 
(D) 1 and 2

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B 
(B) C
(C) D 
(D) E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
(A) 20% 
(B) 25%
(C) 30% 
(D) 33.33%

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-49

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-49

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication
(A) Visual one way 
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way 
(D) Visual two way

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow 
(B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai 
(D) Mumbai

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 
(B) 1936
(C) 1946 
(D) 1956

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?
(A) NTCS 
(B) PAL
(C) NTSE 
(D) SECAM

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points 
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points 
(D) Television Rating Points

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, …………
(A) 60 
(B) 64
(C) 72 
(D) 70

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(A) N 
(B) M
(C) O 
(D) L

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 
(B) 2
(C) 4 
(D) 5

10. The basis of the following classification is :
‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names 
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases 
(D) Indefinite description

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-48

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012-DEC) MODEL PAPER-48

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling 
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling 
(D) Stratified sampling

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science.New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science.
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:
1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

54. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive 

(B) Negative
(C) Neutral 

(D) Unspecified

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million 

(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million 

(D) 60 million

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization 

(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities 

(D) All the above

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress
(D) The limits to growth