Thursday, September 8, 2016

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2004- DEC)MODEL PAPER-125

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2004- DEC)MODEL PAPER-125

1. Discussion Method can be used when:
(A) The topic is very difficult 

(B) The topic is easy
(C) The topic is difficult 

(D) All of the above

2. Which of the following is a teaching aid?
(A) Working Model of Wind Mill 

(B) Tape Recorder
(C) 16mm Film Projector 

(D) All the above

3. The main aim of teaching is:
(A) To develop only reasoning 

(B) To develop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B) 

(D) To give information

4. The quality of teaching is reflected:
(A) By the attendance of students in the class
(B) By the pass percentage of students
(C) By the quality of questions asked by students
(D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class

5. The present annual examination system:
(A) promotes rote learning
(B) does not promote good study habits
(C) does not encourage students to be regular in class
(D) All the above

6. A college wants to give training in use of Statistical Package for Social Sciences (SPSS) to researchers. For this the college should organize:
(A) Conference 

(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop 

(D) Lecture

7. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research?
(A) Research is systematic 

(B) Research is not a process
(C) Research is problem oriented 

(D) Research is not passive

8. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Discoveries are researches
(B) Researches lead to discovery
(C) Invention and Research are related
(D) None of the above

9. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) In research, objectives can be worded in question form
(B) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form
(C) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the Thesis
(D) All the above

10. Match List A with List B and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
               List A                                      List B
(a) Historical Method           (i) Past events
(b) Survey Method               (ii) Vision
(c) Philosophical Method    (iii) Present events
(d) Experimental Method    (iv) Exceptional cases
                                                 (v) Future action
Code:
       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (v)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Wednesday, September 7, 2016

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-124


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-124


41. A negative reaction to a mediated communication is described as:
(A) flak 
(B) fragmented feedback
(C) passive response 
(D) non-conformity

42. The launch of satellite channel by IGNOU on 26th January 2003 for technological education for the growth and development of distance education is:
(A) Eklavya channel 
(B) Gyandarshan channel
(C) Rajrishi channel 
(D) None of these

43. Match List - I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Institutions)                List - II (Locations)
(a) The Indian Council of Historical   (i) Shimla
Research (ICHR)
(b) The Indian Institute of Advanced (ii) New Delhi
Studies (IIAS)
(c) The Indian Council of Philosophical (iii) Banglore
Research (ICPR)
(d) The Central Institute of Coastal   (iv) Lucknow
Engineering for fisheries
       a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iv iii ii i

44. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to freedom of speech and expression
(D) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto the age of 14
Answer: All are fundamental rights
45. The Lok - Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal five year term by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above

Study the following graph carefully and answer Q.No. 46 to 50 given below it:


46. In which year the value per tin was minimum?
(A) 1995
(B) 1996
(C) 1998 
(D) 1999

47. What was the difference between the tins exported in 1997 and 1998?
(A) 10 
(B) 1000
(C) 100000 
(D) 1000000

48. What was the approximate percentage increase in export value from 1995 to 1999?
(A) 350 
(B) 330.3
(C) 433.3 
(D) None of these

49. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1995 to 1996?
(A) 75 
(B) 50
(C) 25 
(D) None of these

50. If in 1998, the tins were exported at the same rate per tin as that in 1997, what would be the value (in crores of rupees) of export in 1998?
(A) 400 
(B) 375
(C) 352 
(D) 330

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-123

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-123


31. An electronic bill board that has a short text or graphical advertising message is referred to as:
(A) bulletin 
(B) strap
(C) bridge line 
(D) banner

32. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a computer?
(A) computer is an electrical machine
(B) computer cannot think at its own
(C) computer processes information error free
(D) computer can hold data for any length of time

33. Bitumen is obtained from
(A) Forests and Plants 
(B) Kerosene oil
(C) Crude oil 
(D) underground mines

34. Malaria is caused by:
(A) bacterial infection 
(B) viral infection
(C) parasitic infection 
(D) fungal infection

35. The cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear nights (without clouds) during winter days. This is because:
(A) clouds radiate heat towards the earth
(B) clouds prevent cold wave from the sky, descend on earth
(C) clouds prevent escaping of the heat radiation from the earth
(D) clouds being at great heights from earth absorb heat from the sun and send towards the earth

36. Largest soil group of India is:
(A) Red soil 
(B) Black soil
(C) Sandy soil 
(D) Mountain soil

37. Main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is
(A) oil spill 
(B) municipal sewage
(C) industrial effluents 
(D) aerosols

38. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the following frequency ranges:
(A) 1-2 KHz 
(B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz 
(D) 13-16 KHz

39. Which species of chromium is toxic in water:
(A) Cr+2 
(B) Cr+3
(C) Cr + 6 
(D) Cr is non-toxic element

40. Match List - I (Dams) with List - II (River) in the following:
List - I (Dams)                List - II (River)
a. Bhakra                           (i) Krishna
b. Nagarjunasagar           (ii) Damodar
c. Panchet                         (iii) Sutlej
d. Hirakud                        (iv) Bhagirathi
e. Tehri                               (v) Mahanadi

       a b c d e
(A) v iii iv ii i
(B) iii i ii v iv
(C) i ii iv iii v
(D) ii iii iv i v

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-122

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-122

21. January 1, 1995 was Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday 
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday 
(D) None of these

22. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is twice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is :
(A) √2 
(B) 1/√2
(C) √3 
(D) 1/√3

23. In a certain code, ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. how will PLEASE will be written in the same code
(A) LPAESE 
(B) PLAESE
(C) LPAEES 
(D) PLASEE

24. At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
(A) 43 5/11 min. past 5 
(B) 43 7/11 min. past 5
(C) 40 min. past 5 
(D) 45 min past 5

25. Statements : I. All students are ambitious
II. All ambitious persons are hard working
Conclusions : (i) All students are hard-working
(ii) All hardly working people are not ambitious
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Only (i) is correct 
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct 
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

26. Statement : Most students are intelligent
Conclusions : (i) Some students are intelligent
(ii) All students are not intelligent
Which of the following is implied?
(A) Only (i) is implied 
(B) Only (ii) is implied
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied 
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied

27. Statement: Most labourers are poor
Conclusions : (i) Some labourers are poor
(ii) All labourers are not poor
Which of the following is implied?
(A) Only (i) is implied 
(B) Only (ii) is implied
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied 
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied

28. Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions of:
(A) the CPU 
(B) the monitor
(C) network protocols 
(D) wide area networks

29. In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in the form of:
(A) signals 
(B) cubes
(C) nodes 
(D) symbols

30. Communications bandwidth that has the highest capacity and is used by microwave, cable and fibre optics lines is known as:
(A) hyper-link 
(B) broadband
(C) bus width 
(D) carrier wave

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-121

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-121

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15

Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation. This is especially important in generating alternative decision support solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence, individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once believed, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-to-face session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases, computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success.

Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software packages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.

11. The author, in this passage has focused on
(A) knowledge creation 
(B) idea-generation
(C) creativity 
(D) individual traits

12. Fostering creativity needs an environment of
(A) decision support systems
(B) idea-nurturing
(C) decision support solutions 
(D) alternative individual factors

13. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in certain occasions,
(A) are alternatively effective 
(B) can be less expensive
(C) do not need a facilitator 
(D) require a mix of optimal participants

14. Idea-generation software works as if it is a
(A) stimulant 
(B) knowledge package
(C) user-friendly trainer 
(D) climate creator

15. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking patterns can be won when:
(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods
(B) idea-generation software prompts questions
(C) manual methods are removed
(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software

16. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as:
(A) channel noise 
(B) semantic noise
(C) psychological noise 
(D) source noise

17. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example of:
(A) time-shifting 
(B) content reference
(C) mechanical clarity 
(D) media synchronisation

18. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:
(A) plentiful of information 
(B) a good amount of statistics
(C) concise proof 
(D) repetition of facts

19. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from the state of:
(A) Kerala 
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal 
(D) Uttar Pradesh

20. Insert the missing number:
8 24 12 ? 18 54
(A) 26 
(B) 24
(C) 36 
(D) 32

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-120

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2005- DEC)MODEL PAPER-120


1. Team teaching has the potential to develop:
(A) Competitive spirit
(B) Cooperation
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching

2. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system?
(A) Students become serious.
(B) It improves attendance in the classroom.
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.
(D) It compels students to think.

3. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of maximum senses?
(A) Problem-solving method 
(B) Laboratory method
(C) Self-study method
(D) Team teaching method

4. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality

5. An effective teacher is one who can:
(A) control the class 
(B) give more information in less time
(C) motivate students to learn 
(D) correct the assignments carefully

6. One of the following is not a quality of researcher:
(A) Unison with that of which he is in search
(B) He must be of alert mind
(C) Keenness in enquiry
(D) His assertion to outstrip the evidence

7. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not possess one of the following qualities
(A) Appropriateness 
(B) Measurability
(C) Comparability 
(D) Flexibility

8. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:
(A) historical research 
(B) participatory research
(C) clinical research 
(D) laboratory research

9. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) objectives should be pin-pointed
(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
(C) another word for problem is variable
(D) all the above

10. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences and humanities are
(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic
(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
(C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
(D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-119

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-119


41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

42. 'SITE' stands for:
(A) System for International technology and Engineering
(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(C) South Indian Trade Estate
(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering

43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri 
(B) Yamunotri
(C) Uttari Gangotri 
(D) None of the above

44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development
(D) All the above

45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
(A) With the prior permission of the President.
(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
(D) At the request of two or more States.

The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number 46 to 50.


46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is:
(A) 1:15 
(B) 1:1
(C) 15:1 
(D) 3:20

47. If the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on basket ball?
(A) Rs. 9,50,000 
(B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs. 12,00,000 
(D) Rs. 15,00,000

48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A) Hockey 
(B) Football
(C) Cricket 
(D) Tennis

49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :
(A) Hockey and Tennis 
(B) Golf and Basket ball
(C) Cricket and Football 
(D) Hockey and Golf

50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey together was:
(A) Rs. 60,00,000 
(B) Rs. 50,00,000
(C) Rs. 37,50,000 
(D) Rs. 25,00,000

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-118


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-118


31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called:
(A) cyberventing 
(B) cyber ranting
(C) web hate 
(D) web plea

32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is termed:
(A) poor recall 
(B) web crawl
(C) poor precision rate 
(D) poor web response

33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:
(A) virtual reality 
(B) fuzzy logic
(C) bluetooth technology 
(D) value added networks

34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is called:
(A) voice net 
(B) voice telephone
(C) voice line 
(D) voice portal

35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed live casting is called:
(A) virtual video 
(B) direct broadcast
(C) video shift 
(D) real-time video

36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
(A) Tripura 
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram 
(D) Manipur

37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
(A) high evaporation
(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells
(D) seepage of sea water

38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys
(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east

39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:
(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
(B) inundation of land by sea water
(C) traditional agriculture practices
(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India?
(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi
(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi

Tuesday, September 6, 2016

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-117

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-117

21. Insert the missing number:
16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34, ?
(A) 19/35 
(B) 19/30
(C) 18/35 
(D) 18/30

22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994?
(A) Thursday 
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday 
(D) Saturday

23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is:
(A) 36 
(B) 32
(C) 30 
(D) 28

24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code?
(A) VNLDM 
(B) FHQKN
(C) XPNFO 
(D) VLNDM

25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(A) 45 min. past 4 
(B) 40 min. past 4
(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 
(D) 54 6/11 min. past 4

26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.
Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.
(A) Only (I) is implied
(B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?
(A) Any MLA 
(B) Chief of Army Staff
(C) Solicitor General of India 
(D) Mayor of Delhi

28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.
(A) only (I) is implied
(B) only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:
(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks
(B) increases the weight of the overburden
(C) enhances chemical weathering
(D) is a universal solvent

30. Direction for this question:
Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion :
Statements:
(a) all businessmen are wealthy.
(b) all wealthy people are hard working.
Conclusions:
(i) All businessmen are hard working.
(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy
(A) Only (i) follows
(B) Only (ii) follows
(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-116

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2006- JUNE)MODEL PAPER-116

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.

Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.

11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:
(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.

12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No. :
(A) 324 
(B) 356
(C) 246 
(D) 161

13. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status. 
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers. 
(D) have political powers.

14. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency 
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations 
(D) role for pressure groups

15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125 
(B) 352
(C) 226 
(D) 324

16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
(A) content supply 
(B) surveillance
(C) gratification 
(D) correlation

17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as:
(A) cybernetics 
(B) reverse communication
(C) selectivity study 
(D) response analysis

18. Networked media exist in inter-connected:
(A) social environments 
(B) economic environments
(C) political environments 
(D) technological environments

19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as:
(A) online communication 
(B) integrated media
(C) digital combine 
(D) convergence

20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as:
(A) man-machine speak 
(B) binary chat
(C) digital talk 
(D) interactivity