UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-62

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-62

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more
(A) complex structure 
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure 
(D) formal structure

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelization 
(B) mediation
(C) encoding 
(D) decoding

13. Effective communication needs a supportive
(A) economic environment 
(B) political environment
(C) social environment 
(D) multi-cultural environment

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s
(A) personality 
(B) expectation
(C) social status 
(D) coding ability

15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become
(A) myths 
(B) reasons
(C) experiences 
(D) convictions

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s
(A) competence 
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity 
(D) ethnicity

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship:
(A) fraction : decimal 
(B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom 
(D) dividend : divisor

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 
(B) 142
(C) 153 
(D) 165

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as
(A) BOBY 
(B) COBY
(C) DOBY 
(D) OOBY

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 
(B) 10/18
(C) 11/19 
(D) 10/19

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-61

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-JUNE) MODEL PAPER-61

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as
(A) Descriptive Research 
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research 
(D) Applied Research

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar 
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference 
(D) Symposium

4. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives 
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools 
(D) Collection of Data

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10:
All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct : the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.

Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.

It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

Answer the following questions:

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(A) the chosen texts of his own 
(B) political actions
(C) historical trends 
(D) his enquiries

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of
(A) conclusions 
(B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness 
(D) habitual interpretation

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques
(B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians
(D) cosmological beliefs

8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice
(B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes
(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(A) literary criticism 
(B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy 
(D) intellectual history

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class 
(B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature 
(D) the mirror-image of philistinism

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-51

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-51

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM 
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM 
(D) 1:30 PM

The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below:


23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(A) 6.79 GW 
(B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW 
(D) 29.1 GW

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(A) 29.1 GW 
(B) 26.19 GW
(C) 67.9 GW 
(D) 97 GW

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A) Phone lines 
(B) LAN
(C) Internet 
(D) a Server

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

27. Which of the following is not a programming language?
(A) Pascal 
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java 
(D) C++

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3 
(B) 5
(C) 8 
(D) 10

29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System 
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser 
(D) IP address

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-60

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-60

51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research 

(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research 

(D) Descriptive Research

52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures 

(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories 

(D) hands on training/experience

53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph 

(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire 

(D) Diagram

54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60):
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.

The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non - materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism 

(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation 

(D) Inordinate development

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is 

(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be 

(D) Where it is

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity 

(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life 

(D) Enlightened rationalism

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature

59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive 

(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic 

(D) Optional

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material 

(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance 

(D) humans are irresponsible

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-59

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-59

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments

42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard 

(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope 

(D) Globe

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law 

(B) canon
(C) postulate 

(D) supposition

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling 

(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling 

(D) Quota Sampling

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-58

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-58

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide 

(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide 

(D) Aerosols

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen 

(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide 

(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy 

(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy 

(D) Tidal energy

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector 

(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants 

(D) Hydropower plants

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake 

(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods 

(D) Nuclear accident

36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values 

(B) the social values
(C) the political values 

(D) the economic values

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 

(B) 07
(C) 08 

(D) 09

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I                                              List – II

(Commissions and (Year)
Committees)

(a) First Administrative                 (i) 2005
Reforms Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby                       (ii) 1962
Committee I
(c) K. Santhanam                           (iii) 1966
Committee
(d) Second Administrative             (iv) 1953
Reforms Commission
Codes:
      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-57

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-57

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100 

(B) 110
(C) 120

(D) 180

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30 

(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25 

(D) exactly 5

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt 

(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt 

(D) 0.75 mmt

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt 

(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt 

(D) 4 mmt

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?
(A) Windows Vista 

(B) Android
(C) Windows XP 

(D) All of the above

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2 

(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10 

(D) (1111)16

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle 

(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab 

(D) Assembler

28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program 

(B) high level program
(C) web page 

(D) web server

29. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System 

(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software 

(D) Dependent Name Server

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-56

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-56

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.10,000.
(A) persuasive
(B) precising
(C) lexical
(D) stipulative

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10 

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-55

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2011-DEC) MODEL PAPER-55

1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping 

(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting 

(D) Photo colour adjustment

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
(A) Audience 

(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite 

(D) Media

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
(A) English 

(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali 

(D) Tamil

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3 

(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3 

(D) 2 : 4

5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication 

(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication 

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76 

(B) 74
(C) 75

(D) 50

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X 

(B) Y
(C) Z 

(D) A

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3 

(B) 6
(C) 9 

(D) 4

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions 

(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases 

(D) Common names

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-54

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-1(2012- JUNE) MODEL PAPER-54

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study 
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study 
(D) Experimental study

52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups 
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research 
(D) All the above

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

54. Research ethics do not include
(A) Honesty 
(B) Subjectivity
(C) Integrity 
(D) Objectivity

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60:

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about Rs 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary