Tuesday, August 30, 2016

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-12


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-12


51. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is related to the girl as:
(A) Son 

(B) Brother
(C) Uncle 

(D) Nephew

52. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be:
(A) ELIPQB 

(B) LEQIBP
(C) ELQBIP 

(D) LEBIQP

53. The term 'grapevine' is also known as:
(A) Horizontal communication 

(B) Downward communication
(C) Informal communication 

(D) Upward communication

54. Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
      Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(A) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is correct but, (R) is false

Question numbers 55 to 60 are based on the tabulated data given below:

A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them:



55. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40-50 years?
(A) 36.5 

(B) 35
(C) 42.5 

(D) 40.5

56. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?
(A) 47% 

(B) 45%
(C) 50% 

(D) 55%

57. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30-35 years?
(A) 35% 

(B) 20%
(C) 25% 

(D) 30%

58. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary ≥ 40,000 per month?
(A) 32% 

(B) 45%
(C) 50% 

(D) 35%

59. What is the average age of the employees?
(A) 45.3 years 

(B) 40.3 years
(C) 38.6 years 

(D) 47.2 years

60. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary?
(A) 50-55 years 

(B) 35-40 years
(C) 40-45 years 

(D) 45-50 years

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-11

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-11


41. In communication, the language is:
(A) The non-verbal code 

(B) The verbal code
(C) Intrapersonal 

(D) The symbolic code

42. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:
(A) Persuasive 

(B) Stipulative
(C) Theoretical 

(D) Lexical

43. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(A) Its premises and conclusions are all true
(B) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(C) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(D) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true

44. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

45. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements? Select the code:
Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes:
(A) (a), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

46. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(A) 80 

(B) 73
(C) 75 

(D) 78

47. Inductive reasoning is grounded on:
(A) Harmony of nature 

(B) Integrity of nature
(C) Unity of nature 

(D) Uniformity of nature

48. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the type:
(A) Physiological 

(B) Inductive
(C) Deductive 

(D) Demonstrative

49. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

50. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(A) 30 

(B) 10
(C) 20 

(D) 15

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-10


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-10


Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 31 to 36.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.

Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings: "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed.
What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions:

31. Rational optimists:
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b) and (c) only 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a) only 

(D) (a) and (b) only

32. Humans become less selfish when:
(A) they work in solitude
(B) they work in large groups
(C) they listen to frightening stories
(D) they listen to cheerful stories

33. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who:
(A) are cheerful and carefree 

(B) follow Midway Path
(C) are doom-mongers 

(D) are self-centred

34. Story telling is:
(A) the essence of what makes us human
(B) an art
(C) a science
(D) in our genes

35. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(A) some important stories
(B) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(C) some stories that we remember
(D) a few stories that survive

36. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(A) Designed to make prophecy
(B) We collectively choose to believe in
(C) Which are repeatedly narrated
(D) Designed to spread fear and tension

37. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will be:
(A) 50 

(B) 42
(C) 48 

(D) 45

38. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them:
Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes:
(A) (b) and (c) 

(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (d) 

(D) (a) and (c)

39. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have:

passed in all five subjects              = 5583
passed in three subjects only        = 1400
passed in two subjects only           = 1200
passed in one subject only             = 735
failed in English only                     = 75
failed in Physics only                     = 145
failed in Chemistry only                = 140
failed in Mathematics only            = 200
failed in Bio-science only               = 157

The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(A) 7900 

(B) 6300
(C) 6900 

(D) 7300

40. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?
(A) Strategic use of grapevine
(B) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(C) Participation of the audience
(D) One-way transfer of information

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-9


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-9


21. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(A) Evaluating 

(B) Knowing
(C) Understanding 

(D) Analysing

22. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(A) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
(B) Making selections for a specific job
(C) Selecting candidates for a course
(D) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners

23. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
(A) Causal Comparative Research 

(B) Historical Research
(C) Descriptive Research 

(D) Experimental Research

24. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

25. A good thesis writing should involve:
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

26. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (c) and (d)

27. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his:
(A) Evaluation Research 

(B) Fundamental Research
(C) Applied Research 

(D) Action Research

28. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement indicates a:
(A) statistical hypothesis 

(B) research hypothesis
(C) null hypothesis 

(D) directional hypothesis

29. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

30. A good teacher is one who:
(A) inspires students to learn
(B) gives useful information
(C) explains concepts and principles
(D) gives Printed notes to students

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-8


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-8


11. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(A) Google Talk 

(B) AltaVista
(C) MAC 

(D) Microsoft Office

12. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(A) 23 percent 

(B) 8 percent
(C) 12 percent 

(D) 19 percent

13. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately:
(A) ~64 

(B) ~8
(C) ~16 

(D) ~32

14. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A) Keyboard 

(B) Printer
(C) Speaker 

(D) Monitor

15. Which of the following is not open source software?
(A) Apache HTTP server 

(B) Internet explorer
(C) Fedora Linux 
(D) Open office

16. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons 

(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Fine particulate matter 

(D) Ozone

17. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(A) 43 

(B) 08
(C) 14 

(D) 27

18. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
(A) Oil, forests and tides
(B) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(C) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(D) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water


19. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(A) Learning through experience
(B) Teacher's knowledge
(C) Class room activities that encourage learning
(D) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
20. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-7

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-JUNE)-MODEL PAPER-7


1. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(A) Terabyte 

(B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte 

(D) Gigabyte

2. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(A) Population, forest cover and land available per person
(B) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(C) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(D) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover

3. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25?
(A) 11011 

(B) 10101
(C) 01101 

(D) 11001

4. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

5. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

6. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(A) ~15% 

(B) ~3%
(C) ~6% 

(D) ~10%

7. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(A) India 

(B) USA
(C) European Union 

(D) China

8. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(A) Decryption 

(B) Protection
(C) Detection 

(D) Encryption

9. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(A) 7th July 

(B) 21st April
(C) 24th April 

(D) 21st June

10. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(A) Kathmandu 

(B) Colombo
(C) Dhaka 

(D) New Delhi

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-6


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-6


51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
     Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire 

(B) Lightning
(C) Landslide 

(D) Chemical contamination

53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW 

(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW 

(D) 350 GW

54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India

55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c) 

(B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) the Union List 

(B) the State List
(C) the Concurrent List 

(D) the Residuary Powers

59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed

60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra 

(B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) West Bengal

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-5


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-5

41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
(A) 1981-1991 

(B) 1991-2001
(C) 2001-2011 

(D) 1971-1981

42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 o 2011?
(A) 100% 

(B) 300%
(C) 600% 

(D) 900%

43. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application ?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only 

(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a) only 

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:
(A) 4 bits 

(B) 8 bits
(C) 16 bits 

(D) 10 bits

46. Which of the following is not an input device?
(A) Microphone 

(B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick 

(D) Monitor

47. Which of the following is an open source software?
(A) MS Word 

(B) Windows
(C) Mozilla Firefox 

(D) Acrobat Reader

48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?
(A) Mail join 

(B) Mail copy
(C) Mail insert 

(D) Mail merge

49. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code:
(A) (a) and (b) only 

(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only 

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

50. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?
(A) Pesticides 

(B) Mercury
(C) Lead 

(D) Ozone

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-4

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-4

31. Consider the argument given below:
‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive 

(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological 

(D) Biological

32. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) 

(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c) 

(D) (a) and (d)

33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference 

(B) An argument
(C) An explanation 

(D) A valid argument

34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
(A) : No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical 

(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative 

(D) Persuasive

36. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) All men are honest 

(B) Some men are honest
(C) Some men are not honest 

(D) No honest person is man

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.
Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to 42.


37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(A) 1961-71 

(B) 1971-81
(C) 1991-2001 

(D) 2001-2011

38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:
(A) ~12.21% 

(B) ~9.82%
(C) ~6.73% 

(D) ~5%

39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?
(A) 40.34 million 

(B) 38.49 million
(C) 37.28 million 

(D) 36.62 million

40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(A) 100 W 

(B) 200 W
(C) 400 W 

(D) 500 W

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-3

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-3

21. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(A) Reception 

(B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation 

(D) Context

22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal 

(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal 

(D) Irrational

23. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:
(A) Spurious 

(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian 

(D) Confrontational

24. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
(A) the use of hyperbole 

(B) the change of voice level
(C) the use of abstract concepts 

(D) eye contact

25. The next term in the series
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:
(A) 50 

(B) 57
(C) 62 

(D) 72

26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:

(A) 80 

(B) 76
(C) 74 

(D) 72

27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:
(A) 20 km 

(B) 14 km
(C) 12 km 

(D) 10 km

28. The next term in the series:
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:
(A) J561 

(B) 162Q
(C) Q62J 

(D) J58Q

29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:
(A) 12 

(B) 14
(C) 18 

(D) 24

30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:
(A) Son 

(B) Brother
(C) Uncle 

(D) Father

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-2

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-1

11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale 

(B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire 

(D) Schedule

12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format 

(B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy 

(D) Data sharing policies

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to 17.

I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good luck, best, Joel”.

It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and
snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Answer the following questions:

13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean ?
(A) A state of confusion 

(B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety 

(D) A state of pain

14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting 

(B) Photography
(C) Sketching 

(D) Reading

15. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only 

(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (b) and (c) only

16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800 

(B) 560
(C) 500 

(D) 100

17. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only 

(B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only 

(D) (a) only

19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation 

(B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol 

(D) Mind mapping

20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language 

(B) Personal language
(C) Para language 

(D) Delivery language

UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC)-MODEL PAPER-1


UGC-NET&SET-PAPER-I(2015-DEC) - MODEL PAPER-1


1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:
(A) Family 

(B) Society
(C) Teacher 

(D) State

2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation ?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) 

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d) 

(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type questions?
(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.

5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled
(A) International Commission on Education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning : The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All

6. What are required for good teaching?
(a) Diagnosis 

(b) Remedy
(c) Direction 

(d) Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) 

(D) (c) and (d)

7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research ?
(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(B) It emphasises on people as experts.
(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?
(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) 

(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) and (c) 

(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) 

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

काव्य-लक्षण








UGC-NET&SET-MODEL PAPER-102

UGC-NET&SET-MODEL PAPER-102


11. महादेवी वर्मा की रचना है?
A) सुखदा 
B) साहित्य सहचर 
C) शेष स्मृतियाँ 
D) क्षणदा

12. मिश्रबंधुओं में सम्मिलित है?
A) प्रताप नारायण मिश्र, कृष्ण बिहारी मिश्र, गोविंद नारायण मिश्र
B) शुकदेव बिहारी मिश्र, कृष्ण बिहारी मिश्र, गणेश बिहारी मिश्र
C) गणेश बिहारी मिश्र, गोविंद नारायण मिश्र, प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D) शुकदेव बिहारी मिश्र, कृष्ण बिहारी मिश्र, राज बिहारी मिश्र

13. करूणा के विषय में आचार्य रामचंद्र शुक्ल की मान्यताएँ हैं?
1) यह दुःखात्मक वर्ग में आने वाला मनोविकार है।
2) यह विषय की भलाई की उत्तेजना करता है।
3) यह विषय की दुःख मात्र से उत्पन्न नहीं हो जाता।
4) उपर्युक्त तीनों कथन सही हैं।
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों सही 
B) 2 और 3 दोनों सही 
C) 3 और 4 दोनों सही 
D) 1,2 और 3 तीनों सही

14. “छायावाद” ग्रंथ के विषय में मान्यता है
1) उक्त ग्रंथ के लेखक नामवर सिंह हैं
2) उक्त ग्रंथ के लेखक नगेन्द्र हैं
3) उक्त ग्रंथ में निराला की विस्तृत समीक्षा है
4) छायावाद स्थूल के प्रति सूक्ष्म का विद्रोह है –
सही विकल्प बताइए
A) 2 और 3 दोनों सही 
B) 3 और 4 दोनों सही 
C) 1 और 3 दोनों सही 
D) 1,2 और 4 तीनों सही

15. रामविलास शर्मा के विषय में मान्यता है
1) वे निराला नामक पुस्तक के लेखक हैं
2) वे निराला की साहित्य साधना नामक पुस्तक के लेखक हैं
3) वे जनवादी लेखक संघ के महासचिव थे
4) वे प्रगतिशील लेखक संघ के अध्यक्ष थे
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों सही 
B) 2 और 4 दोनों सही 
C) 1,2 और 3 तीनों सही 
D) 2,3 और 4 तीनों सही

16. मुक्तिबोध के विषय में मान्यता है
1) ये प्रगतिवादी आलोचक है
2) उन्होंने कामायनी की भी समीक्षा की है
3) नई कविता और अस्तित्ववाद उनका महत्वपूर्ण समीक्षा ग्रंथ है
4) संवेदनात्मक ज्ञान और ज्ञानात्मक संवेदन शब्द मुक्तिबोध की मौलिक उद्भावना है
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों सही 
B) 3 और 4 दोनों सही 
C) 2 और 3 दोनों सही 
D) 3 और 4 दोनों सही

17. लोक ह्रदय में लीन होने की दशा का नाम रस दशा है।
1) उक्त कथन नगेन्द्र का है
2) उक्त कथन रामचंद्र शुक्ल का है
3) उक्त कथन हजारीप्रसाद द्विवेदी का नहीं है
4) उक्त कथन नन्ददुलारे वाजपेई का भी नहीं है
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 3 दोनों सही 
B) 2 और 4 दोनों सही 
C) 1 और 2 दोनों गलत 
D) 2 और 4 दोनों गलत

18. सूर साहित्य ग्रंथ के लेखक हैं
1) आचार्य हजारीप्रसाद द्विवेदी
2) आचार्य नन्ददुलारे वाजपेई
3) ब्रजेश्वर वर्मा
4) हरवंशलाल शर्मा
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों गलत 
B) 2 और 3 दोनों गलत 
C) 3 और 4 दोनों गलत 
D) 1,2,3 गलत और 4 सही

19. तारसप्तक के कवि हैं
1) मुक्तिबोध, नेमिचंद्र जैन, रामविलास शर्मा
2) भारतभूषण अग्रवाल, प्रभाकर माचवे, अज्ञेय
3) रामविलास शर्मा, नेमिचन्द्र जैन, केदारनाथ सिंह
4) भारतभूषण अग्रवाल, रामविलास शर्मा, केदारनाथ अग्रवाल
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों सही 
B) 1 और 2 दोनों गलत 
C) 3 और 4 दोनों सही 
D) 3 और 4 तीनों गलत

20. तोडती पत्थर प्रसिद्ध कविता की पंक्ति है
1) यह निराला के जीवन के उत्तरार्ध की कविता है
2) इसमें एक मजदूर महिला का चित्रण है
3) यह प्रगतिवादी कविता है
4) यह एक प्रसिद्ध प्रेम गीत है
सही विकल्प बताइए -
A) 1 और 2 दोनों सही 
B) 2 और 3 दोनों सही 
C) 3 और 4 दोनों सही 
D) 1 और 4 दोनों सही

Friday, August 26, 2016

UGC-NET&SET-MODEL PAPER-101

UGC-NET&SET-MODEL PAPER-101


21. मैथिलीशरण गुप्त का एक उपनाम था:
A) मधुप 

B) राष्ट्रकवि 
C) भारत भारती 
D) मुंशी अजमेरी

22. सन् 2013 किस कवि का जन्मशती-वर्षा हैं?
A) शमशेर बहादुर सिंह 
B) भवानीप्रसाद मिश्र 
C) केदारनाथ अग्रवाल 
D) नरेंद्र शर्मा

23. प्रयोगवादी काव्यधारा में कौन कवि नहीं है?
A) कुँवरनारायण 
B) भारत भूषण अग्रवाल 
C) शमशेर बहादुर सिंह 
D) नागार्जुन

24. मुक्तिबोध की कौनसी रचना फँटेसी से प्रभावित नहीं है?
A) चाँद का मुँह टेढा है 
B) ब्रह्मराक्षस 
C) भूल-गलती 
D) अँधेरे में

25. सूरा प्रेमचंद के किस उपन्यास का पात्र है?
A) कर्मभूमि 
B) कायाकल्प 
C) रंगभूमि 
D) वरदान

26. राजस्थानी हिंन्दी की बोलियाँ हैं:
1) मेवाती 
2) मालवी 
3) मारवाडी 
4) बाँगरू
इनमें से कौनसा क्रम सही हैं
A) 1,2 और 3 
B) 2,3 और 4 
C) 1,3 और 4 
D) 1,2 और 4

27. कामायनी के सर्ग हैं
1) आशा 
2) उत्साह 
3) इडा 
4) चिंता
इनमें से कौनसा सही विकल्प हैं
A) 1,2 और 3 
B) 1,3 और 4 
C) 2,3 और 4 
D) 1,2 और 4

28. इलाचंद्र जोशी के उपन्यास हैं
1) जिप्सी 
2) ऋतुचक्र 
3) जहाज का पंछी 
4) त्यागपत्र
इनमें से कौनसा सही विकल्प हैं
A) 1,2 और 4 
B) 1,2 और 3 
C) 2,3 और 4 
D) 1,3 और 4

29. महिला-उपन्यासकारों के उपन्यास हैं
1) बेघर 
2) आपका बंटी 
3) नागफनी का संदेश 
4) मित्रोमरजानी
इनमें से कौनसा क्रम सही हैं
A) 1,2 और 3 
B) 1,2 और 4 
C) 2,3 और 4 
D) 1,3 और 4

30. लक्ष्मीनारायणलाल के नाटक हैं
1) अंधा कुआँ 
2) मादा कैक्टस 
3) जय-पराजय 
4) सूर्यमुखी
इनमें से कौनसा सही विकल्प हैं
A) 1,2 और 3 
B) 2,3 और 4 
C) 1,3 और 4 
D) 1,2 और 4